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Geoffrey Anstey's avatar

The clearest parts of this paper for me are that land is in fact valued at its highest and best use, that is way the market works, and that values for residential use tend to decline with distance from an urban centre, even without regulation. However, it is important to note that the latter is complicated by the fact that many urban regions are multi-centred and also by the fact that lot sizes tend to affect land values because solely/largely residential use is nearly always an option. Except in the case of very high value/intensive agriculture or horticulture, much rural land within the sphere of influence of major urban centres is at best used for part-time farming, and often only for 'rural living'. That is certainly the case for land with slopes and/or relatively poor soil such that it would otherwise only be used for grazing. Even quite large lot sizes, say 40 hectares, can be devoted to rural living as the highest and best use, particularly once improvements are made for large houses, etc.

Another couple of points:

# even without regulation, areas closer to existing urban development would tend to be valued higher as having better prospects for extension of necessary urban infrastructure in the future, at a feasible cost

# the feasibility of urban development on any site is partly dependent on the extent to which it might logically link in to existing or planned or prospective infrastructure on nearby land - so you can't consider the value of any individual site without looking at its context/catchment. This also tends to necessitate some degree of complementary/joint action/choices for a particular area to make urban development feasible - through some combination of a major master planning developer, a joint private venture and/or governments allocating the area to urban development and supporting the provision of infrastructure to it.

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Radu Parvulescu's avatar

Great article. My only recommendation would be to explicitly link and reference Mason Gaffney. He wrote A LOT about why land is different from capital, and why assuming that it is just another form of capital will systematically blind economic analysis, in favour of landowners. Just a small shout-out and link, so people who want to go deeper can, and to show that your points aren’t drawn out of thin air, but backed by a long and well established line of economic reasoning.

The too-long-didn’t-read version: https://www.cooperative-individualism.org/gaffney-mason_land-as-a-distinctive-factor-of-production.pdf

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